The First Amendment to US Constitution

Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances.

Do the Executive and Judicial branches assume, believe, act as though they are absent from the restrictions stated here in the First Amendment to the US Constitution?  I believe they may assume and believe that.  The actions taken in both branches confirm that.

In 1789, only Congress made laws.  The Executive Branch only enforced laws passed by Congress and the Judicial Branch only interpreted laws passed by Congress.

Please don’t miss that this amendment gives you the freedom to speak, the freedom to write or speak where others read or hear you, the freedom to assemble and the freedom to petition your government when you disagree with laws, with the execution of laws and with the interpretation of laws.

Does the Constitution’s framing context make Executive Orders illegal?  Does the Constitution’s framing context make judicial activism illegal?
Related:

First Amendment
Amendment 1
Executive Orders by President
Obama: Authority Overreach

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